| In accordance 
              with the briefing schedule set by the Bankruptcy Court, the Trustee’s 
              brief on the question of net equity will be submitted shortly.  A 
              month later briefs opposing him will be filed. Briefs filed on net 
              equity in the past by Picard’s opponents seem to me very good and, 
              in toto, pretty complete. While one does not yet know what the Trustee 
              will say, because his prior work generally has not focused on defending 
              his definition of net equity (although he has discussed his 
              position a bit on his website and in some briefs), one can 
              expect that the opponents will reiterate the (very strong) points 
              they have previously made and may add some new ones if they do come 
              up with new ones. And they almost certainly will specifically retort 
              to points the Trustee makes. In reading what little the Trustee 
              has said in the past to justify his cash-in / cash-out position 
              on net equity, a couple of thoughts struck me that, as far as I 
              can recollect, have thus far not been made by opponents. I shall 
              set them forth here. The Trustee has said from early-on 
              that cash-in / cash-out is justified because persons who took out 
              money from Madoff received money put in by other investors. True, 
              but he neglects to mention that the money put in by persons who 
              also took out money was likewise used to pay other 
              investors. Some of those other investors were prior ones, but some 
              might even have been subsequent ones because, up until the 
              last year or so, Madoff appears to have had 17 to 20 billion dollars 
              in his account at JP Morgan Chase. The meaning of all this is that, 
              for example, if someone invested one million dollars in 2001, her 
              money was used to pay off other investors, many or all of whom took 
              out more than they put in, just as other people’s money was used 
              to pay her when she later took out sums that could 
              have been equal to or more than she put in.  What 
              I am trying to say here is that Picard’s model is, in effect, simple 
              minded because it neglects portions of the reality. His comments, 
              you know, have the aura of blaming people who took out more than 
              they put in, because, he says, they received other people’s money 
              and therefore should get nothing. He does not mention that, correlatively, 
              other people received their money - and, if these others 
              cashed out completely over six years ago, will never have to repay 
              the money.
 This brings me to the legitimate 
              expectations of investors, denoted by the sums shown on their November 
              30th statements. Much has already been written about legitimate 
              expectations in briefs and blogs, but let me add one point that 
              has rarely if ever been explicitly mentioned, although often 
              it has seemed implicit to me. The point in mind is this: 
              even aside from the fact that Congress mandated it, why should 
              the amounts shown as owing to her in statements received by 
              an innocent investor be considered her legitimate expectation? The 
              answer, though quintessentially simple, is overlooked by Picard 
              and almost everyone else too. It is that the innocent investor, 
              like anyone else, plans her life around the amounts of money that 
              she justifiably believes she has, including the amount shown on 
              her statement. Her purchases, her expenditures - everything gets 
              planned around the amount of money she thinks she has, including 
              what is shown on her statements. That is why the amount shown in 
              the statement must be considered the net equity of an innocent 
              investor who never suspected fraud (this would not include the Picowers 
              and Chaises) unless you are in the business of screwing people. 
              The innocent person made her plans based on what she legitimately 
              thought she had - knowing of course that she is subject to market 
              risk, as everyone is in investments, but never having any reason 
              to suspect fraud - a fraud which continued only because the government 
              she relied on was so phenomenally negligent that its failure to 
              catch Madoff was defacto intentional. 
 Just this week a lawyer explained 
              to me a point which I shall use to further support my point. I don’t 
              know that the lawyer has yet written the point in a brief - the 
              lawyer may or may not have. I am confident it will appear in future 
              briefs, but don’t know if the lawyer wishes to be identified now, 
              so I won’t identify the attorney and will say only that I thought 
              the point most salient. Suppose, said the attorney, 
              you have put $100,000 into a bank, and over the years received statements 
              saying that (because of interest) you now have $150,000 in your 
              account. Then the bank declares bankruptcy, and the FDIC says it 
              will only pay you $100,000 because the bank was insolvent the whole 
              time and so the interest credited to your account was phantom interest, 
              phantom profit. You would hear the screams from here to Washington, and you can pretty well rest assured that the FDIC would 
              not be allowed to get away with this. Well, what the FDIC is attempting 
              in this hypothetical example is what the Trustee is attempting here. The situation would be even 
              closer if the FDIC, in the example, were acting to save itself because 
              it will run out of money, as may be - and I think is - what 
              accounts for SIPC’s action here, as has been discussed in a prior 
              post. Let me make yet one other point 
              regarding net equity. So far people - including me - seem to have 
              been operating under the assumption that if you have a negative 
              net equity for purposes of SIPC, which so many do under Picard’s 
              cash-in / cash-out theory, then not only do you fail to get any 
              money from SIPC, but you also have no right to any share of the 
              estate, to any share of what I gather is called customer property 
              by Picard and Harbeck.  Put 
              differently, what is net equity for SIPC purposes also controls 
              for bankruptcy purposes: No net equity for SIPC purposes means no 
              share in the bankruptcy estate. But reading some cases cited by 
              Picard for his cash-in / cash-out theory makes me wonder whether 
              this is necessarily true; makes me wonder whether what is net equity 
              for SIPC purposes does control what one’s share of the bankruptcy 
              estate is. The cases cited by Picard were not SIPC cases; 
              they were bankruptcy cases. For bankruptcy law, cash-in / cash-out 
              might make some sense, because legitimate expectations, which are 
              a linchpin of net equity under SIPC pursuant to both Congressional 
              intent and case law, conceivably seem not pertinent in bankruptcy. 
              So I would think it at least conceivable that under the law someone 
              might have a positive net equity under SIPC because her November 
              30th statement is the legitimate expectation and the measure of 
              net equity, yet have little or no interest in the bankruptcy estate 
              because she took out more from Madoff than she put in. It may 
              be that all of us, Picard included, have wrongly been conflating 
              two ideas that are not necessarily the same. Perhaps it is also possible 
              that Picard is conflating the two ideas deliberately because he 
              knows, as one expert told me (I think I understand him correctly), 
              that clawbacks in bankruptcy are limited to 90 days. By using cash-in 
              / cash-out to arrive at a negative net equity, and by using that 
              negative net equity as the measure of a person’s relationship to 
              the estate, it is suggested (if I understand things rightly) 
              that Picard is putting someone who received a nonfraudulent preference 
              in the position of owing money to the estate. The money may not 
              be collectible because of timing rules, I gather, but at least the 
              investor won’t have to be paid money by the estate (if I 
              understand right, which may be questionable). 
 Let me close with a brief point 
              which is on a different subject than net equity, but which relates 
              to the Trustee. For months I have wondered - and have written of 
              the wonderment - why Madoff had given what apparently is more than 
              seven billion dollars to a guy who put in only about $1.5 billion, 
              Jeffry Picower. The only thing I could think of was that maybe Picower 
              was fronting for the Mafia or for one or more secret services. But 
              someone has now told me a different possible reason which has an 
              immediate ring of truth, though one cannot yet know if it is 
              true and can only hope that Picard, the FBI and the U.S. Attorney 
              are all tracking it down.  Picower 
              used to specialize in promoting tax shelters. Did his tax shelters, 
              as many do, involve foreign countries or foreign institutions in 
              some way? Did he, like so many involved with shelters, meet all 
              kinds of persons who are in the business of sheltering funds here 
              and abroad for wealthy taxpayers. For maybe, you see, Madoff was 
              sending all this money to Picower to hide it overseas for him. That 
              would make sense. If it happened, it may be hard to trace the 
              money to its final destination. Or maybe not, since there are records 
              of bank transfers. One can only hope that Picard, the FBI and the 
              U.S. Attorney are all looking into this because the idea that Madoff 
              was sending money to a former tax shelter expert to hide it for 
              him overseas may be far and away the best conjecture on why Madoff 
              would send over seven billion dollars to someone who put in only 
              about $1.5 billion.
 
 BlackCommentator.com 
              Columnist, Lawrence R. Velvel, JD, is the Dean of Massachusetts 
              School of Law. He is the author of Blogs From the Liberal Standpoint: 2004-2005 
               (Doukathsan Press, 2006). Click here 
              to contact Dean Velvel, or you may, post your comment on his website, 
              VelvelOnNationalAffairs.com. 
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