In accordance
with the briefing schedule set by the Bankruptcy Court, the Trustee’s
brief on the question of net equity will be submitted shortly. A
month later briefs opposing him will be filed. Briefs filed on net
equity in the past by Picard’s opponents seem to me very good and,
in toto, pretty complete. While one does not yet know what the Trustee
will say, because his prior work generally has not focused on defending
his definition of net equity (although he has discussed his
position a bit on his website and in some briefs), one can
expect that the opponents will reiterate the (very strong) points
they have previously made and may add some new ones if they do come
up with new ones. And they almost certainly will specifically retort
to points the Trustee makes.
In reading what little the Trustee
has said in the past to justify his cash-in / cash-out position
on net equity, a couple of thoughts struck me that, as far as I
can recollect, have thus far not been made by opponents. I shall
set them forth here.
The Trustee has said from early-on
that cash-in / cash-out is justified because persons who took out
money from Madoff received money put in by other investors. True,
but he neglects to mention that the money put in by persons who
also took out money was likewise used to pay other
investors. Some of those other investors were prior ones, but some
might even have been subsequent ones because, up until the
last year or so, Madoff appears to have had 17 to 20 billion dollars
in his account at JP Morgan Chase. The meaning of all this is that,
for example, if someone invested one million dollars in 2001, her
money was used to pay off other investors, many or all of whom took
out more than they put in, just as other people’s money was used
to pay her when she later took out sums that could
have been equal to or more than she put in.
What
I am trying to say here is that Picard’s model is, in effect, simple
minded because it neglects portions of the reality. His comments,
you know, have the aura of blaming people who took out more than
they put in, because, he says, they received other people’s money
and therefore should get nothing. He does not mention that, correlatively,
other people received their money - and, if these others
cashed out completely over six years ago, will never have to repay
the money.
This brings me to the legitimate
expectations of investors, denoted by the sums shown on their November
30th statements. Much has already been written about legitimate
expectations in briefs and blogs, but let me add one point that
has rarely if ever been explicitly mentioned, although often
it has seemed implicit to me. The point in mind is this:
even aside from the fact that Congress mandated it, why should
the amounts shown as owing to her in statements received by
an innocent investor be considered her legitimate expectation? The
answer, though quintessentially simple, is overlooked by Picard
and almost everyone else too. It is that the innocent investor,
like anyone else, plans her life around the amounts of money that
she justifiably believes she has, including the amount shown on
her statement. Her purchases, her expenditures - everything gets
planned around the amount of money she thinks she has, including
what is shown on her statements. That is why the amount shown in
the statement must be considered the net equity of an innocent
investor who never suspected fraud (this would not include the Picowers
and Chaises) unless you are in the business of screwing people.
The innocent person made her plans based on what she legitimately
thought she had - knowing of course that she is subject to market
risk, as everyone is in investments, but never having any reason
to suspect fraud - a fraud which continued only because the government
she relied on was so phenomenally negligent that its failure to
catch Madoff was defacto intentional.
Just this week a lawyer explained
to me a point which I shall use to further support my point. I don’t
know that the lawyer has yet written the point in a brief - the
lawyer may or may not have. I am confident it will appear in future
briefs, but don’t know if the lawyer wishes to be identified now,
so I won’t identify the attorney and will say only that I thought
the point most salient.
Suppose, said the attorney,
you have put $100,000 into a bank, and over the years received statements
saying that (because of interest) you now have $150,000 in your
account. Then the bank declares bankruptcy, and the FDIC says it
will only pay you $100,000 because the bank was insolvent the whole
time and so the interest credited to your account was phantom interest,
phantom profit. You would hear the screams from here to Washington, and you can pretty well rest assured that the FDIC would
not be allowed to get away with this. Well, what the FDIC is attempting
in this hypothetical example is what the Trustee is attempting here.
The situation would be even
closer if the FDIC, in the example, were acting to save itself because
it will run out of money, as may be - and I think is - what
accounts for SIPC’s action here, as has been discussed in a prior
post.
Let me make yet one other point
regarding net equity. So far people - including me - seem to have
been operating under the assumption that if you have a negative
net equity for purposes of SIPC, which so many do under Picard’s
cash-in / cash-out theory, then not only do you fail to get any
money from SIPC, but you also have no right to any share of the
estate, to any share of what I gather is called customer property
by Picard and Harbeck. Put
differently, what is net equity for SIPC purposes also controls
for bankruptcy purposes: No net equity for SIPC purposes means no
share in the bankruptcy estate. But reading some cases cited by
Picard for his cash-in / cash-out theory makes me wonder whether
this is necessarily true; makes me wonder whether what is net equity
for SIPC purposes does control what one’s share of the bankruptcy
estate is. The cases cited by Picard were not SIPC cases;
they were bankruptcy cases. For bankruptcy law, cash-in / cash-out
might make some sense, because legitimate expectations, which are
a linchpin of net equity under SIPC pursuant to both Congressional
intent and case law, conceivably seem not pertinent in bankruptcy.
So I would think it at least conceivable that under the law someone
might have a positive net equity under SIPC because her November
30th statement is the legitimate expectation and the measure of
net equity, yet have little or no interest in the bankruptcy estate
because she took out more from Madoff than she put in. It may
be that all of us, Picard included, have wrongly been conflating
two ideas that are not necessarily the same.
Perhaps it is also possible
that Picard is conflating the two ideas deliberately because he
knows, as one expert told me (I think I understand him correctly),
that clawbacks in bankruptcy are limited to 90 days. By using cash-in
/ cash-out to arrive at a negative net equity, and by using that
negative net equity as the measure of a person’s relationship to
the estate, it is suggested (if I understand things rightly)
that Picard is putting someone who received a nonfraudulent preference
in the position of owing money to the estate. The money may not
be collectible because of timing rules, I gather, but at least the
investor won’t have to be paid money by the estate (if I
understand right, which may be questionable).
Let me close with a brief point
which is on a different subject than net equity, but which relates
to the Trustee. For months I have wondered - and have written of
the wonderment - why Madoff had given what apparently is more than
seven billion dollars to a guy who put in only about $1.5 billion,
Jeffry Picower. The only thing I could think of was that maybe Picower
was fronting for the Mafia or for one or more secret services. But
someone has now told me a different possible reason which has an
immediate ring of truth, though one cannot yet know if it is
true and can only hope that Picard, the FBI and the U.S. Attorney
are all tracking it down.
Picower
used to specialize in promoting tax shelters. Did his tax shelters,
as many do, involve foreign countries or foreign institutions in
some way? Did he, like so many involved with shelters, meet all
kinds of persons who are in the business of sheltering funds here
and abroad for wealthy taxpayers. For maybe, you see, Madoff was
sending all this money to Picower to hide it overseas for him. That
would make sense. If it happened, it may be hard to trace the
money to its final destination. Or maybe not, since there are records
of bank transfers. One can only hope that Picard, the FBI and the
U.S. Attorney are all looking into this because the idea that Madoff
was sending money to a former tax shelter expert to hide it for
him overseas may be far and away the best conjecture on why Madoff
would send over seven billion dollars to someone who put in only
about $1.5 billion.
BlackCommentator.com
Columnist, Lawrence R. Velvel, JD, is the Dean of Massachusetts
School of Law. He is the author of Blogs From the Liberal Standpoint: 2004-2005
(Doukathsan Press, 2006). Click here
to contact Dean Velvel, or you may, post your comment on his website,
VelvelOnNationalAffairs.com.
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